1. What is the key advantage of using digital marketing over traditional marketing methods?
A. Lower cost per impression.
B. Ability to precisely measure and track campaign performance.
C. Guaranteed higher reach and frequency.
D. Elimination of the need for creative content.
2. What is ‘buzz marketing’ primarily aimed at achieving?
A. Generating excitement and word-of-mouth about a brand or product.
B. Reducing advertising costs through viral campaigns.
C. Creating a negative image of competitors.
D. Controlling all online conversations about a brand.
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using social media for marketing?
A. High cost per impression.
B. Difficulty in targeting specific demographics.
C. Lack of control over the message and potential for negative feedback.
D. Inability to measure campaign effectiveness.
4. What is the primary goal of integrated marketing communications (IMC)?
A. To maximize the number of advertising channels used.
B. To ensure all marketing and promotional activities project a consistent, unified brand message.
C. To reduce the overall marketing budget.
D. To focus solely on digital marketing tactics.
5. A company is using a ‘pull’ promotional strategy. Which of the following actions would be MOST consistent with this strategy?
A. Offering retailers discounts for stocking the product.
B. Running television advertisements targeting end consumers.
C. Providing sales training to distributors.
D. Sending promotional materials to wholesalers.
6. What is the role of a ‘media planner’ in the advertising process?
A. To create the creative content for advertisements.
B. To select the most effective media channels to reach the target audience.
C. To manage the advertising budget.
D. To analyze the results of advertising campaigns.
7. What is the purpose of ‘reminder advertising’?
A. To build primary demand for a new product category.
B. To persuade customers to switch to a different brand.
C. To maintain brand relationships and keep the brand in customers’ minds during the off-season.
D. To compare the brand to its competitors.
8. Which of the following factors is MOST important when determining the advertising budget?
A. Competitor’s spending.
B. Stage of the product life cycle.
C. Personal preferences of the marketing manager.
D. Availability of internal resources.
9. Which of the following is a key advantage of using mobile marketing?
A. Lower cost compared to traditional advertising.
B. Ability to reach consumers based on their location and real-time behavior.
C. Guaranteed higher conversion rates.
D. Elimination of the need for engaging content.
10. A company wants to measure the effectiveness of its advertising campaign. Which of the following metrics would be MOST relevant for assessing brand awareness?
A. Website traffic.
B. Sales volume.
C. Brand recall and recognition.
D. Customer satisfaction scores.
11. Which of the following is NOT a core element of the marketing mix, often referred to as the 4Ps?
A. Price
B. Product
C. People
D. Promotion
12. A company is considering using viral marketing. What is a key characteristic of a successful viral marketing campaign?
A. High budget and extensive media coverage.
B. Content that is highly shareable and engaging.
C. Directly selling the product or service.
D. Complete control over the message and distribution.
13. What is ‘branded content’ or ‘native advertising’?
A. Advertising that is easily identifiable as a paid advertisement.
B. Marketing material that blends seamlessly with the surrounding content.
C. Content created by consumers about a brand.
D. Advertising that is targeted at a niche audience.
14. Which of the following is a potential ethical concern related to advertising?
A. Using humor in advertisements.
B. Targeting vulnerable populations with potentially harmful products.
C. Showing diverse representation in advertisements.
D. Using data analytics to personalize advertising messages.
15. What is the primary role of public relations in the promotional mix?
A. To directly persuade customers to purchase a product.
B. To build good relations with the company’s various publics by obtaining favorable publicity.
C. To provide short-term incentives to encourage the purchase or sale of a product or service.
D. To deliver a consistent and persuasive message to a target audience through paid media.
16. A company decides to focus its marketing efforts on a small segment of consumers who are willing to pay a premium price for its product. Which pricing strategy is the company MOST likely using?
A. Penetration pricing
B. Economy pricing
C. Value pricing
D. Premium pricing
17. What is the key difference between advertising and public relations?
A. Advertising is always free, while public relations requires payment.
B. Advertising is paid media, while public relations is earned media.
C. Advertising is more credible than public relations.
D. Advertising is only used for consumer products, while public relations is for businesses.
18. Which of the following is an example of sales promotion?
A. A television advertisement for a new car model.
B. A public relations campaign highlighting a company’s environmental initiatives.
C. A ‘buy-one-get-one-free’ offer on a popular snack item.
D. A salesperson making a direct sales call to a potential client.
19. A company uses ‘push’ strategy when it focuses its marketing efforts on:
A. Convincing consumers to demand the product from intermediaries.
B. Motivating channel members to carry and promote the product to end users.
C. Creating brand awareness through mass media advertising.
D. Offering discounts directly to consumers.
20. A company offers a ‘premium’ as a sales promotion tool. Which of the following is an example of a ‘premium’?
A. A coupon offering 20% off the next purchase.
B. A free toy included inside a cereal box.
C. A ‘buy-one-get-one-free’ offer.
D. A contest with a grand prize of a vacation.
21. What is the main objective of ‘persuasive advertising’?
A. To inform the market of a new product.
B. To build selective demand by persuading customers that the brand offers the best value for their money.
C. To remind consumers of a product’s availability.
D. To create buzz around a new product launch.
22. Which of the following is an example of ‘guerrilla marketing’?
A. Running a full-page advertisement in a national newspaper.
B. Sponsoring a major sporting event.
C. Creating a surprising and unconventional promotional activity in a public place.
D. Sending out personalized emails to a customer database.
23. Which promotional tool involves direct interaction with carefully targeted individual consumers to both obtain an immediate response and cultivate lasting customer relationships?
A. Advertising
B. Public Relations
C. Personal Selling
D. Sales Promotion
24. Which of the following is NOT a major decision in advertising?
A. Setting advertising objectives.
B. Setting the product’s price.
C. Evaluating advertising campaigns.
D. Making media decisions.
25. A company is launching a new product. Which promotional mix element is MOST effective for creating immediate awareness and generating initial trial?
A. Advertising
B. Public Relations
C. Sales Promotion
D. Direct Marketing
26. What is the main objective of informative advertising?
A. To build brand preference by persuading customers that it offers the best value.
B. To announce new products or features and build primary demand.
C. To maintain brand relationships and remind consumers that the product may be needed in the near future.
D. To compare the brand’s features and benefits with those of competitive brands.
27. Which of the following is an advantage of using direct marketing?
A. Low cost per contact.
B. Ability to personalize messages and build relationships.
C. High level of control over media placement.
D. Wide reach to a mass audience.
28. What is the primary goal of ‘penetration pricing’ strategy?
A. To maximize short-term profits.
B. To quickly gain market share and discourage competitors.
C. To create a perception of high quality and exclusivity.
D. To match the prices of competitors.
29. A company decides to use celebrity endorsements in its advertising campaign. What is the primary risk associated with this strategy?
A. Increased production costs.
B. Potential for the celebrity to engage in controversial behavior, damaging the brand.
C. Difficulty in measuring the return on investment.
D. Limited reach to the target audience.
30. Which of the following best describes ‘direct marketing’?
A. Marketing that uses indirect channels to reach consumers.
B. Marketing that involves engaging directly with carefully targeted individual consumers.
C. Marketing that focuses on mass advertising campaigns.
D. Marketing that relies solely on social media platforms.
31. What is ‘perishability’ in the context of services?
A. Services can be stored for later sale or use.
B. Services cannot be stored for later sale or use.
C. Services are always available.
D. Services are easy to standardize.
32. In which stage of the PLC do sales slow down and profits stabilize or decline?
A. Introduction.
B. Growth.
C. Maturity.
D. Decline.
33. What is the ‘product life cycle’ (PLC)?
A. The amount of time it takes to manufacture a product.
B. The stages a product goes through from concept to market launch.
C. The course of a product’s sales and profits over its lifetime.
D. The process of designing a product.
34. Which of the following is NOT a step in the new product development process?
A. Idea generation.
B. Concept testing.
C. Market strategy development.
D. Employee evaluation.
35. Which of the following is a key challenge for marketers during the introduction stage of the PLC?
A. Building product awareness and trial.
B. Maintaining market share.
C. Harvesting the product.
D. Reducing marketing expenses.
36. What is the primary difference between a product line and a product mix?
A. A product line is a group of products that are closely related because they function in a similar manner, are sold to the same customer groups, are marketed through the same types of outlets, or fall within given price ranges, while a product mix consists of all the product lines and items that a particular seller offers for sale.
B. A product line is a single product offered by a company, while a product mix is a group of closely related products.
C. A product line is determined by the price of the products, while a product mix is determined by the function of the products.
D. A product line is a marketing strategy, while a product mix is a sales strategy.
37. Which of the following is a branding strategy decision?
A. Product attributes.
B. Brand name selection.
C. Pricing strategy.
D. Distribution channel.
38. Which of the following is a function of packaging?
A. To contain the product.
B. To protect the product.
C. To promote the product.
D. All of the above.
39. A company decides to add more versions of an existing product within its current product line. This is an example of:
A. Product line stretching.
B. Product line filling.
C. Product mix widening.
D. Product mix lengthening.
40. Which of the following is NOT a core customer value consideration when developing a product?
A. The product’s features.
B. The product’s price.
C. The actual product or service.
D. The augmented product.
41. A product in the decline stage of the PLC is experiencing:
A. Rapid sales growth.
B. Increasing profits.
C. Decreasing sales and profits.
D. Stable sales and profits.
42. Which of the following is NOT a key decision regarding packaging?
A. Packaging color.
B. Packaging material.
C. Packaging size and shape.
D. Employee compensation.
43. What are the stages of the product life cycle (PLC)?
A. Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline.
B. Planning, Development, Launch, Sales.
C. Ideation, Testing, Marketing, Distribution.
D. Research, Analysis, Strategy, Implementation.
44. What is the purpose of ‘concept testing’ in new product development?
A. To generate as many ideas as possible.
B. To test the product concept with a group of target consumers.
C. To develop a marketing strategy.
D. To analyze the company’s financial performance.
45. What is ‘brand equity’?
A. The monetary value of all the company’s assets.
B. The differential effect that knowing the brand name has on customer response to the product or its marketing.
C. The legal protection afforded to a brand name.
D. The cost of creating and maintaining a brand.
46. What does ‘inseparability’ mean in the context of services?
A. Services can be easily separated from each other.
B. Services cannot be separated from their providers.
C. Services are always consistent in quality.
D. Services can be stored for later use.
47. A company offers a warranty on its product. This is an example of:
A. Core customer value.
B. Actual product.
C. Augmented product.
D. Potential product.
48. In which stage of the PLC are sales growing rapidly and profits are increasing?
A. Introduction.
B. Growth.
C. Maturity.
D. Decline.
49. A company decides to add a new product line to its existing product mix. This is an example of:
A. Product line stretching.
B. Product line filling.
C. Product mix widening.
D. Product mix deepening.
50. A product that a consumer either does not know about or knows about but does not normally consider buying is a(n):
A. Convenience product.
B. Shopping product.
C. Specialty product.
D. Unsought product.
51. What is ‘variability’ in the context of services?
A. Services are always the same.
B. Service quality depends on who provides them and when, where, and how.
C. Services are easy to standardize.
D. Services are always predictable.
52. A convenience product is defined by which of the following characteristics?
A. It is a product that the consumer is willing to spend considerable effort to find.
B. It is a product that the consumer does not know about or knows about but does not initially want.
C. It is a product that the consumer buys frequently, immediately, and with minimal comparison and buying effort.
D. It is a product with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of buyers is willing to make a special purchase effort.
53. What is the purpose of a brand extension strategy?
A. To dilute the original brand’s image.
B. To introduce a new product category under an existing brand name.
C. To limit the company’s product offerings.
D. To create a completely new brand for each product.
54. What is the purpose of a product warranty?
A. To reduce the cost of the product.
B. To provide customer service.
C. To assure customers of product quality and performance.
D. To limit the company’s liability.
55. What is co-branding?
A. Creating a new brand.
B. Using an established brand name for a new product.
C. Using two established brand names of different companies on the same product.
D. Licensing a brand name to another company.
56. What is the primary role of product labeling?
A. To make the product more visually appealing.
B. To provide information about the product and promote the brand.
C. To reduce packaging costs.
D. To protect the product during shipping.
57. Which of the following is an example of a service being ‘intangible’?
A. A haircut.
B. A restaurant meal.
C. An airline flight.
D. The inability to touch or hold the service before purchase.
58. Which of the following is an example of a shopping product?
A. Candy.
B. Emergency medical services.
C. A major appliance.
D. Salt.
59. Which of the following is an advantage of using a private brand?
A. Higher advertising costs.
B. Less control over product quality.
C. Higher profit margins.
D. Increased promotional support from the manufacturer.
60. What is a trademark?
A. A general product category name.
B. A brand name or symbol that has been legally protected.
C. A product’s packaging design.
D. A pricing strategy.
61. Which of the following is an example of ‘product development’ as a growth strategy?
A. Selling existing products in new markets.
B. Creating new products for existing markets.
C. Selling existing products in existing markets.
D. Creating new products for new markets.
62. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good marketing objective?
A. Specific
B. Measurable
C. Attainable
D. Vague
63. What is ‘brand equity’?
A. The financial value of a company’s assets.
B. The set of assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add to or subtract from the value provided by a product or service.
C. The number of employees a company has.
D. The cost of advertising a product.
64. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a ‘marketing plan’?
A. A simple list of marketing activities.
B. A document outlining a company’s advertising budget.
C. A written document outlining an organization’s marketing objectives and strategies.
D. A report on past marketing campaign performance.
65. A company that focuses on building strong relationships with its customers and providing excellent service is employing which type of orientation?
A. Production orientation
B. Sales orientation
C. Marketing orientation
D. Product orientation
66. What is ‘positioning’ in marketing?
A. The location of a store.
B. The process of setting the price of a product.
C. Creating a clear, distinctive, and desirable place in the minds of target consumers relative to competing products.
D. The number of products a company produces.
67. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a ‘macroenvironmental’ factor?
A. Company Culture
B. Technological factors
C. Economic factors
D. Political/legal factors
68. What is a ‘value proposition’?
A. A statement of the company’s financial goals.
B. A description of the product’s features.
C. The set of benefits or values a company promises to deliver to consumers to satisfy their needs.
D. The cost of producing a product.
69. What is the primary focus of ‘value-based marketing’?
A. Selling products at the lowest possible price.
B. Providing benefits that outweigh the costs for customers.
C. Creating the most innovative products.
D. Maximizing profits regardless of customer satisfaction.
70. Which of the following is an example of a ‘microenvironmental’ factor?
A. Inflation rate
B. Cultural trends
C. Suppliers
D. Government regulations
71. What is ‘Marketing Myopia’?
A. Focusing on only one marketing channel.
B. Focusing solely on the product rather than the customer needs it fulfills.
C. Ignoring competitor’s actions.
D. Having a short-term marketing strategy.
72. What is the difference between ‘needs’ and ‘wants’?
A. Needs are things people can live without; wants are essential for survival.
B. Needs are essential for survival; wants are desires shaped by culture and personality.
C. Needs are the same as demands; wants are just preferences.
D. There is no difference between needs and wants.
73. What is ‘customer relationship management’ (CRM)?
A. A system for managing employee salaries.
B. A strategy for maximizing short-term profits.
C. A business philosophy and set of strategies, programs, and systems that focus on identifying and building loyalty among the firm’s most valued customers.
D. A method for tracking inventory.
74. What is ‘market penetration’ as a growth strategy?
A. Selling new products in new markets.
B. Selling existing products in existing markets.
C. Selling new products in existing markets.
D. Selling existing products in new markets.
75. A local bakery decides to offer a discount to students who show their student ID. This is an example of:
A. Cost-plus pricing
B. Value-based pricing
C. Competitive pricing
D. Price discrimination
76. A company is analyzing its competitors’ strengths and weaknesses. This is part of which stage of the marketing plan?
A. Implementation
B. Control
C. Situation Analysis
D. Targeting
77. Which ‘P’ of the marketing mix involves decisions about packaging, branding, and service?
A. Price
B. Promotion
C. Place
D. Product
78. A company decides to lower its prices to attract more customers. This is a decision related to which element of the marketing mix?
A. Product
B. Place
C. Promotion
D. Price
79. A company decides to focus its marketing efforts on millennials. This is an example of:
A. Product Development
B. Market Segmentation
C. Diversification
D. Cost Leadership
80. Which of the 4Ps is most closely associated with supply chain management?
A. Price
B. Promotion
C. Place
D. Product
81. What is ‘market segmentation’?
A. Selling products in different geographic locations.
B. Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers with different needs or characteristics.
C. Focusing marketing efforts on a single customer.
D. Ignoring customer differences and treating everyone the same.
82. What is the purpose of conducting a ‘situation analysis’?
A. To determine the company’s stock price.
B. To understand the company’s internal and external environment.
C. To create a new product.
D. To fire underperforming employees.
83. A company decides to enter a completely new market with a completely new product. This is an example of:
A. Market penetration
B. Market development
C. Product development
D. Diversification
84. What does ‘SWOT’ analysis stand for?
A. Sales, Wages, Operations, and Technology
B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
C. Strategies, Workforce, Objectives, and Tactics
D. Stock, Wealth, Outlook, and Trends
85. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a strong brand?
A. Higher customer loyalty
B. Increased price sensitivity
C. Easier product launches
D. Greater trade leverage
86. Which of the following is the best example of ‘sustainable competitive advantage’?
A. A temporary price promotion.
B. A catchy advertising slogan.
C. A well-established brand reputation and customer loyalty.
D. A short-term technological lead.
87. A company decides to expand its business into a new country. This is an example of:
A. Market penetration
B. Market development
C. Product development
D. Diversification
88. What is the purpose of ‘marketing research’?
A. To create advertising campaigns.
B. To gather information about consumers’ needs and preferences.
C. To manage the company’s finances.
D. To design new products.
89. Which of the following is NOT a core aspect of marketing, according to Chapter 6?
A. Creating value
B. Satisfying customer needs and wants
C. Exchanging money for goods
D. Managing profitable customer relationships
90. What is the ‘marketing environment’?
A. The physical location where marketing activities take place.
B. The set of controllable and uncontrollable forces that affect a company’s ability to serve its customers.
C. The company’s internal organizational structure.
D. The company’s advertising budget.
91. Which of the following is NOT a core customer value consideration when defining a product?
A. The actual product
B. The augmented product
C. The associated services
D. The core benefit or service
92. What is a product line’s depth?
A. The number of product lines offered by a company
B. The number of items within a product line
C. The overall length of all product lines combined
D. The consistency of product lines
93. Why would a firm increase the depth of its product line?
A. To capture new or emerging markets
B. To appeal to different market segments
C. To decrease competition
D. To address changing consumer preferences
94. Which of the following is the best example of a convenience product?
A. A Rolex watch
B. A custom-made suit
C. A gallon of milk
D. A life insurance policy
95. A company decides to target a new market segment with an existing product. This is an example of:
A. Brand extension
B. Market penetration
C. Market development
D. Product development
96. A clothing retailer decides to launch its own line of clothing with the store’s name on the label. This is an example of:
A. Brand extension
B. Private-label branding
C. Co-branding
D. Brand licensing
97. What is the primary role of product labeling?
A. To attract consumers’ attention
B. To provide information about the product
C. To protect the product from damage
D. To facilitate product distribution
98. What is co-branding?
A. A branding strategy where two or more brands are featured on a single product
B. A branding strategy where a company uses its own brand name for all of its products
C. A branding strategy where a company licenses its brand to another company
D. A branding strategy where a company creates new brands for each of its product lines
99. Brand equity is best defined as:
A. The total monetary value of a brand’s assets.
B. The set of assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add to or subtract from the value provided by the product or service.
C. The amount of advertising spending allocated to a specific brand.
D. The market share held by a specific brand.
100. Which of the following is NOT a key attribute that makes a brand?
A. Brand Name
B. URLs
C. Characters
D. Distribution Intensity
101. A company is considering changing its packaging to be more environmentally friendly. Which of the following is a potential benefit of this change?
A. Reduced production costs
B. Increased brand loyalty
C. Simplified distribution process
D. Elimination of labeling requirements
102. A company decides to offer a wider variety of flavors for its existing line of potato chips. This is an example of:
A. Increasing product line breadth
B. Increasing product line depth
C. Brand extension
D. Brand dilution
103. What is brand repositioning (or rebranding)?
A. Changing the visual elements of a brand’s packaging
B. Changing a brand’s focus to target a new market or realign the brand’s core emphasis with changing market preferences
C. Introducing a new product line under an existing brand name
D. Expanding a brand’s distribution channels
104. What does brand awareness measure?
A. The percentage of the target market familiar with the brand
B. The strength of the association between the brand and its attributes
C. The loyalty of customers to the brand
D. The financial value of the brand
105. Which type of product is purchased less frequently and requires more comparison shopping?
A. Convenience product
B. Shopping product
C. Specialty product
D. Unsought product
106. Why is packaging important for products?
A. It only protects the product during transportation.
B. It is only important for luxury goods.
C. It can differentiate a product and communicate its value proposition.
D. It is only important for products sold online.
107. Which of the following is NOT a function of product packaging?
A. Containing and protecting the product
B. Promoting the product
C. Facilitating product storage, use, and convenience
D. Determining the product’s price
108. Which of the following is the best example of a brand extension?
A. A company launches a completely new product line under a different brand name.
B. A company uses an existing brand name to launch a new product in a different product category.
C. A company introduces a new flavor of an existing product.
D. A company changes its logo and packaging design.
109. A luxury car manufacturer decides to launch a line of affordable sedans under a different brand name. This is an example of:
A. Brand extension
B. Brand dilution
C. New brands
D. Co-branding
110. A company decides to reduce the number of products it offers within a specific product line. This is an example of:
A. Increasing product line depth
B. Decreasing product line depth
C. Increasing product line breadth
D. Decreasing product line breadth
111. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of co-branding?
A. Increased marketing costs
B. Reduced brand awareness
C. Conflicting brand images
D. Limited market reach
112. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of branding for the customer?
A. Brands facilitate purchases
B. Brands establish loyalty
C. Brands protect from competition
D. Brands are assets
113. What is the purpose of a Universal Product Code (UPC) on a product’s packaging?
A. To provide nutritional information
B. To track inventory and pricing
C. To offer coupons and discounts
D. To indicate the country of origin
114. What is the primary advantage of using private-label brands (store brands)?
A. Higher brand recognition
B. Lower manufacturing costs
C. Increased customer loyalty
D. Greater control over pricing and promotion
115. What is a product line’s breadth?
A. The number of product lines offered by a company
B. The number of items within a product line
C. The overall length of all product lines combined
D. The consistency of product lines
116. A small bakery decides to partner with a local coffee shop to offer its pastries. This is an example of:
A. Brand licensing
B. Co-branding
C. Brand extension
D. Private-label branding
117. What is the risk of brand dilution?
A. The brand becomes too popular
B. The brand loses value due to overextension
C. The brand becomes difficult to protect legally
D. The brand becomes outdated
118. Which of the following is an example of brand licensing?
A. A company manufactures products under its own brand name.
B. A company allows another firm to use its brand name for a fee.
C. A company creates a new brand for a specific product line.
D. A company distributes its products through exclusive retailers.
119. Which of the following is an example of a product that is likely to be classified as an ‘unsought product’?
A. A new smartphone
B. A designer handbag
C. Funeral services
D. A cup of coffee
120. A company that produces laundry detergent decides to add a new line of dish soap under the same brand name. This is an example of:
A. Brand dilution
B. Brand extension
C. Product line depth
D. Product line breadth
121. A company sponsors a local marathon to increase brand visibility. This is an example of:
A. Direct Marketing
B. Sales Promotion
C. Event Marketing
D. Personal Selling
122. What is viral marketing?
A. Using aggressive sales tactics.
B. Creating content that is so compelling that users share it widely.
C. Distributing marketing materials through the postal service.
D. Marketing products with harmful ingredients.
123. What is the first step in developing an effective integrated marketing communications (IMC) plan?
A. Selecting the appropriate promotional tools.
B. Identifying the target audience.
C. Setting the budget for the campaign.
D. Creating the advertising message.
124. Which of the following is an example of direct marketing?
A. Running a television commercial.
B. Sending a catalog to a customer’s home.
C. Sponsoring a sporting event.
D. Placing an advertisement in a newspaper.
125. A company wants to create a strong brand image. Which promotional tool would be MOST suitable?
A. Short-term sales promotion.
B. Aggressive personal selling.
C. Consistent advertising and public relations.
D. Direct marketing campaigns.
126. A company donates a portion of its profits to a charitable cause. This is an example of:
A. Direct Marketing
B. Sales Promotion
C. Cause-Related Marketing
D. Personal Selling
127. Which of the following is NOT a type of sales promotion?
A. Coupons
B. Free Samples
C. Television Advertising
D. Rebates
128. Which of the following is a key benefit of integrated marketing communications (IMC)?
A. Reduced marketing costs.
B. Increased brand loyalty and customer engagement.
C. Simplified marketing strategy.
D. Elimination of all advertising.
129. A company launches a new product and offers free samples in stores. This is an example of:
A. Advertising
B. Public Relations
C. Sales Promotion
D. Personal Selling
130. Which of the following metrics is most useful for evaluating the effectiveness of a direct marketing campaign?
A. Brand awareness
B. Website traffic
C. Conversion rate
D. Social media engagement
131. What is the purpose of a press release?
A. To directly sell products to consumers.
B. To announce news and information to the media.
C. To manage a company’s internal communications.
D. To create advertising campaigns.
132. Which element of the promotional mix is most effective for building long-term relationships with customers?
A. Advertising
B. Sales Promotion
C. Personal Selling
D. Public Relations
133. A company offers a loyalty program to reward repeat customers. This is an example of:
A. Advertising
B. Sales Promotion
C. Direct Marketing
D. Public Relations
134. A small business relies heavily on word-of-mouth marketing. This is an example of:
A. Direct Marketing
B. Viral Marketing
C. Public Relations
D. Advertising
135. What is guerrilla marketing?
A. Marketing to gorillas.
B. Using unconventional and low-cost marketing tactics to create buzz.
C. Employing aggressive sales techniques.
D. Focusing solely on digital marketing.
136. What is the main advantage of using social media marketing?
A. It is always free.
B. It allows for highly targeted and interactive communication with customers.
C. It guarantees immediate sales.
D. It replaces all other forms of marketing.
137. What is the primary goal of integrated marketing communications (IMC)?
A. To maximize the number of advertising channels used.
B. To ensure consistent messaging across all customer touchpoints.
C. To reduce the marketing budget.
D. To focus solely on digital marketing efforts.
138. Which of the following is a disadvantage of personal selling?
A. High cost per contact.
B. Inability to customize the message.
C. Limited reach.
D. Difficulty in measuring results.
139. Which promotional tool is best for addressing negative publicity?
A. Advertising
B. Sales Promotion
C. Public Relations
D. Personal Selling
140. What is ‘push’ promotion strategy?
A. Creating viral content.
B. Focusing on end consumers.
C. Directing promotion efforts towards channel members to induce them to carry the product.
D. Using social media marketing.
141. Which of the following is NOT a core element of the marketing mix?
A. Price
B. Promotion
C. Process
D. Product
142. What is the role of public relations in the promotional mix?
A. To directly persuade customers to buy products.
B. To build positive relationships with the public and manage the company’s image.
C. To offer short-term incentives to increase sales.
D. To create and place advertisements.
143. What is product placement?
A. The location where a product is manufactured.
B. Featuring a product prominently in a movie or TV show.
C. The price at which a product is sold.
D. The design of a product’s packaging.
144. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using advertising as a promotional tool?
A. It reaches a large audience.
B. It is relatively inexpensive per exposure.
C. It can be impersonal and lack direct feedback.
D. It can build brand awareness.
145. A company sends personalized emails to customers based on their past purchases. This is an example of:
A. Mass Marketing
B. Direct Marketing
C. Public Relations
D. Advertising
146. What is ‘pull’ promotion strategy?
A. Convincing retailers to stock your product.
B. Directing promotion efforts towards end consumers to increase demand.
C. Offering incentives to sales staff to push products.
D. Focusing solely on business-to-business marketing.
147. Which promotional tool involves direct interaction with customers to make a sale?
A. Advertising
B. Public Relations
C. Personal Selling
D. Sales Promotion
148. A company hires celebrities to endorse its products. This is an example of:
A. Public Relations
B. Advertising
C. Personal Selling
D. Sales Promotion
149. A company uses coupons and discounts to encourage short-term sales. This is an example of:
A. Public Relations
B. Advertising
C. Personal Selling
D. Sales Promotion
150. What is the role of a media planner?
A. To create advertising slogans.
B. To develop public relations strategies.
C. To determine the best channels to reach the target audience.
D. To manage a company’s social media accounts.
