1. A company wants to implement social CRM. Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate?
A. Ignoring customer comments and feedback on social media.
B. Using social media to broadcast marketing messages without engaging in conversations.
C. Monitoring social media channels for customer mentions and responding to inquiries and complaints promptly.
D. Deleting negative comments on social media to protect brand image.
2. A company wants to delight its customers. Which of the following actions would be MOST effective?
A. Providing basic customer service.
B. Going above and beyond to exceed customer expectations and provide unexpected value.
C. Ignoring customer feedback and complaints.
D. Focusing solely on profit maximization.
3. Which of the following is an example of using technology to enhance customer-centric marketing?
A. Using a CRM system to track customer interactions and personalize marketing messages.
B. Ignoring customer emails and phone calls.
C. Using a generic email list to send the same message to all customers.
D. Making it difficult for customers to find information on the company’s website.
4. What is the primary goal of customer relationship management (CRM)?
A. To automate marketing campaigns and reduce marketing expenses.
B. To gather customer data for market research purposes only.
C. To build and maintain profitable customer relationships by delivering superior customer value and satisfaction.
D. To increase sales volume regardless of customer satisfaction.
5. What is the role of ‘touchpoints’ in customer experience management?
A. They are the physical locations where customers can purchase products.
B. They are the individual interactions a customer has with a company across all channels.
C. They are the points in time when a customer makes a purchase decision.
D. They are the employees who interact directly with customers.
6. A company receives negative customer feedback. What should it do?
A. Ignore the feedback and hope the customer forgets about it.
B. Delete the feedback and pretend it never happened.
C. Acknowledge the feedback, apologize for the issue, and take steps to resolve it and prevent it from happening again.
D. Blame the customer for the issue.
7. What is the meaning of ‘customer delight’?
A. Meeting customer expectations.
B. Exceeding customer expectations to create a positive emotional response and build loyalty.
C. Ignoring customer complaints.
D. Providing average customer service.
8. Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of ‘customer-centric marketing’?
A. Focusing on maximizing short-term profits by any means necessary.
B. Prioritizing product development based solely on internal research and development.
C. Placing the customer at the center of all marketing activities and decisions, aiming to satisfy their needs and build long-term relationships.
D. Using aggressive sales tactics to persuade customers to buy products they don’t necessarily need.
9. A company has a low NPS score. What does this indicate?
A. The company has high customer loyalty.
B. The company has a strong brand reputation.
C. The company has a large number of detractors who are unlikely to recommend it.
D. The company has high employee satisfaction.
10. How does ‘personalization’ contribute to customer-centric marketing?
A. By treating all customers the same, regardless of their individual needs and preferences.
B. By tailoring marketing messages and offers to individual customer needs and preferences, increasing engagement and relevance.
C. By using generic marketing messages that appeal to the broadest possible audience.
D. By ignoring customer data and making assumptions about their needs.
11. A company wants to implement an omnichannel marketing strategy. Which of the following is MOST important?
A. Focusing on only one or two marketing channels.
B. Ensuring that all marketing channels are consistent and integrated, providing a seamless customer experience.
C. Using different branding and messaging on different channels.
D. Ignoring customer data and preferences.
12. What is ‘omnichannel marketing’?
A. Marketing through only one channel, such as email.
B. Providing a seamless and integrated customer experience across all channels and devices.
C. Ignoring customer interactions on social media.
D. Using different marketing messages on different channels.
13. What is the meaning of ‘Net Promoter Score’ (NPS)?
A. A measure of a company’s profitability.
B. A measure of employee satisfaction.
C. A measure of customer loyalty and willingness to recommend a company to others.
D. A measure of brand awareness.
14. A company is struggling with high customer churn. Which of the following strategies would be MOST effective in addressing this issue?
A. Increasing advertising spending to attract new customers.
B. Implementing a customer feedback program to identify areas for improvement.
C. Lowering prices to compete with competitors.
D. Reducing customer service staff to cut costs.
15. A company is facing a situation where improving customer satisfaction would require significant investments that would negatively impact profitability. What should the company do?
A. Ignore customer satisfaction and focus solely on profitability.
B. Invest in improving customer satisfaction regardless of the impact on profitability.
C. Find a balance between customer satisfaction and profitability by identifying cost-effective ways to improve the customer experience.
D. Mislead customers about product quality to maintain satisfaction without incurring additional costs.
16. What is the role of ‘customer feedback’ in customer-centric marketing?
A. It is irrelevant and should be ignored.
B. It provides valuable insights into customer needs and preferences, allowing companies to improve their products and services.
C. It is only useful for resolving customer complaints.
D. It should be used to manipulate customers into buying more products.
17. What is ‘customer lifetime value’ (CLV)?
A. The total revenue a customer generates in a single transaction.
B. The predicted revenue a customer will generate throughout their relationship with a company.
C. The cost of acquiring a new customer.
D. The total number of customers a company has.
18. What is the ‘customer journey’?
A. The route a company uses to deliver products to customers.
B. The series of interactions a customer has with a company from initial awareness to purchase and beyond.
C. The process a company uses to develop new products.
D. The marketing budget allocated to customer acquisition.
19. A company wants to empower its customers. Which of the following strategies would be MOST effective?
A. Limiting customer service options to reduce costs.
B. Providing customers with self-service tools and resources to resolve issues independently.
C. Controlling the flow of information to customers to maintain brand image.
D. Making it difficult for customers to provide feedback.
20. A company is collecting customer data. What steps should it take to ensure customer data privacy?
A. Collecting as much data as possible without informing customers.
B. Selling customer data to third parties without their consent.
C. Obtaining customer consent before collecting data, being transparent about how the data will be used, and implementing security measures to protect the data.
D. Storing customer data in unsecured databases.
21. A company wants to improve its customer experience. Which of the following actions would be MOST beneficial?
A. Reducing the number of customer service channels to streamline operations.
B. Conducting customer journey mapping to understand customer interactions and pain points.
C. Focusing solely on product development and ignoring customer feedback.
D. Increasing prices to improve profit margins.
22. What is ‘customer data privacy’ and why is it important?
A. The practice of collecting and selling customer data to third parties without their consent, which is essential for generating revenue.
B. The practice of protecting customer data from unauthorized access and use, which is crucial for building trust and maintaining customer relationships.
C. The practice of ignoring customer data and making decisions based solely on intuition.
D. The practice of sharing customer data with all employees within a company, regardless of their role.
23. Which of these metrics is MOST directly related to measuring customer loyalty?
A. Website traffic.
B. Social media engagement.
C. Customer retention rate.
D. Advertising spending.
24. How can technology facilitate customer-centric marketing?
A. By replacing human interaction with automated systems.
B. By providing tools and platforms for collecting and analyzing customer data, personalizing marketing messages, and improving customer service.
C. By limiting customer access to information and resources.
D. By making it more difficult for customers to contact the company.
25. Which of the following is NOT a key benefit of implementing a customer-centric marketing strategy?
A. Increased customer loyalty and retention.
B. Improved brand reputation and advocacy.
C. Reduced marketing costs through targeted campaigns.
D. Maximizing short-term sales volume at the expense of customer satisfaction.
26. A company wants to improve its customer journey. Which of the following actions would be MOST helpful?
A. Ignoring customer feedback and focusing on internal processes.
B. Mapping out the customer journey to identify pain points and areas for improvement.
C. Reducing customer service staff to cut costs.
D. Making it difficult for customers to contact the company.
27. Which of the following is an example of ‘customer empowerment’ in marketing?
A. Restricting customer access to product information.
B. Giving customers more control over their purchasing decisions and interactions with the company.
C. Using aggressive sales tactics to pressure customers into buying.
D. Ignoring customer feedback and complaints.
28. What is the potential downside of focusing exclusively on customer satisfaction?
A. Increased customer loyalty.
B. Improved brand reputation.
C. Potential for lower profitability if it comes at the expense of efficiency and cost control.
D. Higher employee satisfaction.
29. What is ‘social CRM’?
A. A CRM system that is only accessible to employees on social media teams.
B. Using social media platforms to engage with customers, gather feedback, and build relationships.
C. A CRM system that is free to use.
D. Ignoring social media channels in customer relationship management.
30. A company wants to personalize its marketing efforts. Which of the following actions would be MOST effective?
A. Sending the same marketing message to all customers.
B. Segmenting customers based on their demographics and tailoring messages to each segment.
C. Ignoring customer purchase history and sending random offers.
D. Using generic email templates without personalization.
31. What is ‘integrated marketing communications’ (IMC)?
A. Using only one type of promotional tool.
B. Coordinating all promotional activities to deliver a consistent message.
C. Ignoring customer feedback in marketing campaigns.
D. Separating advertising and public relations efforts.
32. A company decides to use a ‘pull strategy’ instead of a ‘push strategy.’ What does this imply for their marketing efforts?
A. They will focus on incentivizing retailers to stock their products.
B. They will primarily target consumers directly to create demand.
C. They will reduce their advertising budget significantly.
D. They will rely solely on personal selling.
33. Which promotional tool is most suitable for communicating complex or technical product information to potential customers?
A. Mass advertising on television
B. Personal selling
C. Public relations releases
D. Short social media posts
34. What is a key difference between advertising and sales promotion?
A. Advertising is short-term, while sales promotion is long-term.
B. Advertising builds brand image, while sales promotion drives immediate sales.
C. Advertising is more expensive than sales promotion.
D. There is no significant difference between the two.
35. Which promotional strategy is best suited for products with a high level of complexity and requiring detailed explanation?
A. Mass advertising
B. Sales promotion
C. Public relations
D. Personal selling
36. What is ‘product placement’ in advertising?
A. Placing products in retail stores.
B. Featuring products prominently in movies or TV shows.
C. Advertising products online.
D. Offering products at discounted prices.
37. What is ‘guerilla marketing’ known for?
A. Its high budget and widespread reach.
B. Its unconventional and often surprising tactics.
C. Its reliance on traditional advertising channels.
D. Its focus on a highly targeted and niche audience.
38. A company launches a campaign using ‘native advertising.’ What does this mean?
A. The advertising is created in-house.
B. The advertising blends in with the surrounding content.
C. The advertising is only shown in the company’s home country.
D. The advertising uses only the local language.
39. What is the ‘AIDA’ model used for in marketing communications?
A. To analyze financial statements.
B. To understand the stages of customer response to marketing messages.
C. To manage supply chain logistics.
D. To develop new product ideas.
40. What is the purpose of ‘comparative advertising’?
A. To promote a product without mentioning competitors.
B. To directly compare a product’s features with those of a competitor.
C. To focus solely on emotional appeals.
D. To target a broad audience with a generic message.
41. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using social media marketing?
A. High cost of implementation.
B. Ability to target specific audiences and engage in two-way communication.
C. Complete control over the message.
D. Guaranteed increase in sales.
42. What is the purpose of ‘event marketing’?
A. To promote products through online channels only.
B. To create brand experiences and engage with customers in person.
C. To reduce marketing expenses.
D. To focus solely on business-to-business (B2B) marketing.
43. Why is it important to measure the effectiveness of promotional campaigns?
A. To avoid spending money on marketing.
B. To determine the return on investment (ROI) and optimize future campaigns.
C. Because it is legally required.
D. To make competitors feel bad.
44. What is ‘buzz marketing’ primarily focused on?
A. Creating direct mail campaigns
B. Generating word-of-mouth conversations
C. Utilizing traditional print media
D. Controlling all aspects of the marketing message
45. Which of the following is NOT a typical goal of advertising?
A. Building brand preference
B. Increasing customer loyalty
C. Generating immediate sales
D. Completely eliminating competition
46. What is the key objective of public relations during a crisis?
A. To ignore the situation.
B. To manage communication and minimize damage to the company’s reputation.
C. To blame competitors.
D. To increase advertising spending.
47. Which of the following is a key element of an effective advertising objective?
A. Being vague and open to interpretation.
B. Being measurable and time-bound.
C. Focusing solely on increasing brand awareness.
D. Ignoring the target audience.
48. In the context of marketing communications, what does ‘reach’ refer to?
A. The persuasiveness of the message.
B. The number of people exposed to the message.
C. The frequency of the message.
D. The cost of the advertising campaign.
49. Which of the following is an example of a ‘trade promotion’?
A. A coupon offered to consumers.
B. A discount offered to retailers to encourage larger orders.
C. A television advertisement.
D. A press release about a new product.
50. What is ‘personal selling’?
A. Advertising products online.
B. Direct, face-to-face interaction with potential customers.
C. Sending out mass emails.
D. Using telemarketing to generate leads.
51. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using direct marketing?
A. Inability to personalize messages.
B. High cost per exposure.
C. Difficulty in measuring results.
D. Negative consumer perceptions (e.g., junk mail).
52. A company uses celebrity endorsements in its advertising. What is a potential risk of this strategy?
A. Increased brand awareness.
B. The celebrity’s actions could damage the brand’s reputation.
C. Reduced advertising costs.
D. Guaranteed increase in sales.
53. A company is using ’cause-related marketing.’ What does this mean?
A. They are marketing products that cause harm to the environment.
B. They are linking their brand to a social cause or issue.
C. They are only marketing to charitable organizations.
D. They are ignoring ethical considerations in their marketing.
54. What is the primary goal of ‘institutional advertising’?
A. To promote a specific product or service.
B. To build goodwill and enhance the company’s image.
C. To directly generate sales leads.
D. To offer immediate price discounts.
55. Which of the following is NOT a type of sales promotion?
A. Coupons
B. Public service announcements
C. Contests
D. Rebates
56. What is a ‘news release’ primarily used for in public relations?
A. To directly sell products to consumers.
B. To announce company news and generate media coverage.
C. To criticize competitors.
D. To manage internal communications.
57. Which of the following best describes the role of public relations (PR)?
A. Directly persuading customers to buy a product.
B. Managing the company’s image and relationships with stakeholders.
C. Focusing solely on crisis management.
D. Primarily dealing with advertising campaigns.
58. A company offers a ‘premium’ as part of its sales promotion. What is a premium?
A. A price reduction.
B. An extra item offered free or at a low price with a purchase.
C. A form of advertising.
D. A type of public relations activity.
59. What is the role of a media planner in advertising?
A. To create the creative content of advertisements.
B. To select the best media channels for reaching the target audience.
C. To manage the company’s public relations.
D. To conduct marketing research.
60. What is a potential ethical concern related to advertising to children?
A. Children are highly susceptible to advertising messages.
B. Children do not watch television.
C. Advertising to children is always illegal.
D. Advertising to children is always effective.
61. What is the effect of ‘bundling’ on pricing?
A. It increases the individual price of each product.
B. It offers multiple products or services together at a lower price than purchasing them separately.
C. It simplifies the pricing process.
D. It focuses on pricing individual components.
62. How can ‘prestige pricing’ impact consumer perception?
A. It makes products appear more affordable.
B. It increases the perceived value and quality of the product.
C. It encourages bulk buying.
D. It has no impact on consumer perception.
63. What is ‘everyday low pricing’ (EDLP) and what are its benefits?
A. Constantly changing prices to match competitors; benefit is increased profit margins.
B. Offering consistently low prices without frequent sales; benefit is reduced advertising costs and simplified pricing.
C. Offering high prices with occasional discounts; benefit is increased brand value.
D. Offering the lowest prices for a limited time; benefit is clearing out old inventory.
64. A company launches a new smartwatch. Which pricing strategy would be most suitable if they aim to quickly capture a large market share?
A. Premium pricing
B. Penetration pricing
C. Cost-plus pricing
D. Competitive pricing
65. What is ‘penetration pricing’ primarily aimed at achieving?
A. High profit margins from the start.
B. Rapid market share gain and deterring competitors.
C. Exclusivity and brand prestige.
D. Selling to a niche market.
66. What is ‘price skimming’ primarily used for?
A. Entering a market with a low price.
B. Maximizing revenue from early adopters willing to pay a premium.
C. Selling off excess inventory.
D. Matching competitor’s prices.
67. A retailer uses psychological pricing by pricing an item at $9.99 instead of $10. What is the likely reason for this?
A. To increase production costs.
B. To make the price seem significantly lower.
C. To match competitor’s prices.
D. To comply with government regulations.
68. What is ‘psychological pricing’ designed to influence?
A. Production costs.
B. Consumer perception and emotional response to price.
C. Competitor’s pricing strategies.
D. Government regulations.
69. A retailer wants to clear out seasonal inventory quickly. Which pricing tactic is most appropriate?
A. Premium pricing
B. Discount pricing
C. Cost-plus pricing
D. Value-based pricing
70. A company is launching a product with many innovative features. Which pricing approach would be most appropriate?
A. Cost-plus pricing
B. Competitive pricing
C. Value-based pricing
D. Penetration pricing
71. A company offers a ‘loss leader’. What is the primary purpose of this tactic?
A. To maximize profits on that specific item.
B. To attract customers who will then purchase other, more profitable items.
C. To reduce inventory costs.
D. To compete directly on price with all competitors.
72. What is the main advantage of using cost-plus pricing for a small business?
A. It maximizes profit margins.
B. It ensures all costs are covered and a profit is made.
C. It attracts more customers.
D. It is easy to undercut competitors’ prices.
73. What is the role of ‘price elasticity of demand’ in pricing decisions?
A. It measures the cost of producing a product.
B. It measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in price.
C. It measures the competitor’s pricing strategy.
D. It measures the effectiveness of advertising campaigns.
74. An airline uses dynamic pricing. What factors might cause the price of a flight to increase?
A. Decreased demand and increased seat availability.
B. Increased demand and decreased seat availability.
C. Lower fuel costs.
D. Government subsidies.
75. Which factor would have the LEAST impact on a company’s pricing strategy?
A. Production costs
B. Competitor pricing
C. Government regulations
D. The CEO’s favorite color
76. What is ‘high-low pricing’ and what is its potential drawback?
A. Offering consistently low prices; drawback is reduced profit margins.
B. Charging high prices for high-quality products; drawback is limited customer base.
C. Offering temporary price reductions on a small number of items; drawback is customer frustration when the promotion ends.
D. Charging high prices initially and then lowering them over time; drawback is alienating early adopters.
77. What is the potential drawback of using penetration pricing in the long term?
A. It can lead to high profit margins.
B. It can be difficult to raise prices later.
C. It can improve brand reputation.
D. It can attract more customers in the long run.
78. What is the potential risk of using ‘predatory pricing’?
A. It can lead to higher profit margins.
B. It can attract more customers in the long run.
C. It can be illegal and result in fines and legal action.
D. It can improve brand reputation.
79. A company is facing high competition in the market. Which pricing strategy could help them stand out?
A. Cost-plus pricing
B. Competitive pricing
C. Value-based pricing
D. Penetration pricing
80. How does ‘dynamic pricing’ work, and in what industries is it common?
A. Setting a fixed price for a long period; common in the real estate industry.
B. Adjusting prices in real-time based on demand, competition, and other factors; common in airlines, hotels, and e-commerce.
C. Offering discounts to loyal customers; common in retail.
D. Setting prices based on government regulations; common in utilities.
81. What is the primary difference between ‘cost-based’ and ‘market-based’ pricing?
A. Cost-based pricing focuses on production costs, while market-based pricing considers customer demand and competitor prices.
B. Cost-based pricing is illegal, while market-based pricing is legal.
C. Cost-based pricing maximizes profits, while market-based pricing minimizes costs.
D. Cost-based pricing is only for services, while market-based pricing is only for products.
82. How does ‘geographic pricing’ affect the final cost to the consumer?
A. It applies uniform pricing regardless of location.
B. It adjusts pricing based on shipping costs, taxes, and other location-specific factors.
C. It sets a single global price.
D. It ignores location-based differences.
83. What is the primary goal of setting product pricing?
A. To cover production costs.
B. To maximize profits by finding the optimal price point.
C. To undercut competitors’ prices.
D. To simply match the industry average.
84. What is ‘cost-plus pricing’ and when is it typically used?
A. Setting prices based on competitor’s prices; used in highly competitive markets.
B. Adding a standard markup to the cost of the product; used when costs are predictable and stable.
C. Setting prices based on customer perceived value; used for luxury goods.
D. Setting prices below cost to gain market share; used for new product launches.
85. What is the significance of ‘break-even analysis’ in pricing?
A. It calculates the price needed to maximize revenue.
B. It determines the sales volume needed to cover all costs at a given price.
C. It analyzes competitor pricing strategies.
D. It measures customer satisfaction with pricing.
86. A luxury brand is launching a limited-edition handbag. Which pricing strategy aligns best with maintaining its brand image?
A. Economy pricing
B. Penetration pricing
C. Premium pricing
D. Promotional pricing
87. A company selling generic medicines needs to ensure they are perceived as affordable. Which pricing strategy would be most effective?
A. Value-based pricing
B. Competitive pricing
C. Cost-plus pricing
D. Premium pricing
88. Which of the following is an example of value-based pricing?
A. Selling a product at the same price as competitors.
B. Pricing a product based on the perceived benefits it offers to customers.
C. Adding a standard markup to the cost of the product.
D. Selling a product below cost to gain market share.
89. Which of the following is NOT a common pricing strategy?
A. Cost-plus pricing
B. Value-based pricing
C. Predatory pricing
D. Random pricing
90. What are ‘price anchors’ in the context of pricing strategy?
A. The lowest price a company can offer.
B. Reference prices that consumers use to evaluate whether a deal is good or bad.
C. The highest price a company can charge.
D. The average price of a product in the market.
91. What is the primary goal of marketing intelligence?
A. To gather and analyze publicly available information about competitors and the marketing environment
B. To conduct primary research through surveys and experiments
C. To analyze internal sales data
D. To develop new products
92. What is the purpose of test marketing?
A. To finalize the advertising campaign
B. To gather data on product performance in a limited market setting before a full-scale launch
C. To reduce the overall marketing budget
D. To analyze competitor pricing strategies
93. What is the role of customer relationship management (CRM) in marketing information systems?
A. To manage the company’s finances
B. To manage interactions with current and potential customers
C. To manage the supply chain
D. To manage employee performance
94. Which of the following is a potential ethical concern in marketing research?
A. Using statistical analysis
B. Protecting participant anonymity and confidentiality
C. Using deceptive practices to obtain information
D. Using focus groups
95. What is the main objective of causal research?
A. To describe the characteristics of a market segment
B. To identify cause-and-effect relationships
C. To explore new product ideas
D. To gather preliminary data
96. A company is launching a new line of organic snacks. Which research method would be most effective in understanding consumer perceptions of organic products?
A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Causal research
D. Experimental research
97. What is the purpose of a marketing dashboard?
A. To track and visualize key marketing metrics and performance indicators
B. To manage the company’s finances
C. To manage the supply chain
D. To manage employee performance
98. What is data mining?
A. The process of collecting data from social media
B. The process of extracting useful information and patterns from large datasets
C. The process of conducting surveys
D. The process of creating data visualizations
99. A company uses social media listening tools to monitor brand mentions and customer sentiment. This is an example of:
A. Marketing research
B. Marketing intelligence
C. Data mining
D. Test marketing
100. Which of the following is NOT a key component of a marketing information system (MIS)?
A. Internal company records
B. Marketing intelligence
C. Marketing research
D. Personal opinions of the CEO
101. Which of the following is a key challenge associated with big data?
A. Lack of available data
B. Difficulty in processing and analyzing the data
C. Low data quality
D. Limited data storage capacity
102. A company is trying to determine the optimal price for its new product. Which type of research would be most helpful?
A. Exploratory research
B. Descriptive research
C. Causal research
D. Observational research
103. A company is facing declining sales and wants to understand the reasons behind it. Which type of research would be most appropriate to identify potential causes?
A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Causal research
D. Observational research
104. Which of the following best describes ‘big data’?
A. Small, easily manageable datasets
B. Extremely large and complex datasets that are difficult to process using traditional methods
C. Data collected from a small sample size
D. Data that is only used for internal reporting
105. What is the main advantage of using experiments in marketing research?
A. They are less expensive than surveys
B. They allow researchers to establish cause-and-effect relationships
C. They are easier to implement than focus groups
D. They always provide accurate results
106. A company wants to predict future sales based on historical data. Which data analysis technique would be most appropriate?
A. Descriptive statistics
B. Regression analysis
C. Focus group analysis
D. Content analysis
107. Which of the following is a limitation of observational research?
A. It is always expensive
B. It can only be conducted online
C. It cannot determine the reasons behind the observed behavior
D. It is not useful for exploratory research
108. A marketing manager is reviewing sales data to identify which products are performing well in specific regions. This is an example of:
A. Marketing intelligence
B. Marketing research
C. Data mining
D. Test marketing
109. Which of the following is NOT a step in the marketing research process?
A. Defining the problem and research objectives
B. Developing the research plan
C. Implementing the research plan
D. Ignoring the findings
110. Which of the following is an advantage of online surveys?
A. Higher response rates compared to mail surveys
B. Ability to reach a geographically diverse audience at a lower cost
C. Greater control over the respondent’s environment
D. Elimination of response bias
111. Which type of research is best suited for exploring ambiguous problems and generating hypotheses?
A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Causal research
D. Secondary research
112. What is the role of a ‘mystery shopper’?
A. To conduct surveys
B. To analyze sales data
C. To observe and evaluate customer service anonymously
D. To develop new products
113. How can companies use marketing information systems to improve their competitive advantage?
A. By ignoring customer feedback
B. By making decisions based on intuition rather than data
C. By gaining insights into customer needs and competitor strategies
D. By reducing their marketing budget
114. What is the difference between primary and secondary data?
A. Primary data is collected for a specific purpose, while secondary data already exists
B. Primary data is always more accurate than secondary data
C. Primary data is less expensive than secondary data
D. There is no difference between primary and secondary data
115. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using secondary data?
A. It is usually more expensive to obtain than primary data
B. It may not be relevant or accurate for the specific research question
C. It takes longer to collect than primary data
D. It is not readily available
116. A company wants to understand customer satisfaction levels with its new product. Which research approach would be most appropriate?
A. Exploratory research
B. Descriptive research
C. Causal research
D. Observational research
117. Which of the following is an example of a marketing intelligence activity?
A. Conducting a customer satisfaction survey
B. Analyzing competitor websites and social media activity
C. Developing a new advertising campaign
D. Conducting test marketing
118. What is a focus group?
A. A statistical analysis technique
B. A type of survey conducted online
C. A small group of people brought together for an in-depth discussion on a topic
D. A method for analyzing sales data
119. A researcher wants to understand the reasons why consumers prefer a certain brand of coffee. Which research method would be most appropriate?
A. Survey research
B. Experimental research
C. Focus group research
D. Observational research
120. Which sampling method gives each member of the population an equal chance of being selected?
A. Convenience sampling
B. Judgment sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Quota sampling
121. A company launches a social media campaign that goes viral but generates negative sentiment. What is this an example of?
A. Successful marketing communication.
B. Effective public relations.
C. A marketing communication failure due to poor message control.
D. A cost-effective advertising strategy.
122. Which promotional tool is most suitable for creating immediate sales?
A. Public Relations
B. Advertising
C. Sales Promotion
D. Personal Selling
123. What is ‘guerilla marketing’?
A. A marketing strategy that uses conventional methods.
B. A marketing strategy that uses unconventional and often low-cost tactics to create surprise and generate buzz.
C. A marketing strategy that focuses solely on digital advertising.
D. A marketing strategy that focuses solely on print advertising.
124. Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when setting the promotion budget?
A. The stage of the product life cycle.
B. The company’s market share.
C. Competitor spending.
D. The CEO’s favorite color.
125. What is ‘noise’ in the context of the communication process?
A. The volume of the advertisement.
B. Unplanned static or distortion during the communication process.
C. The clarity of the message being sent.
D. The channel used to deliver the message.
126. Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of effective marketing communication?
A. Clear and concise messaging.
B. Relevance to the target audience.
C. Consistency across all channels.
D. Ignoring customer feedback.
127. Integrated marketing communications (IMC) emphasizes which of the following?
A. Using only one type of promotional tool to maximize its impact.
B. Ensuring all marketing communications are consistent and unified.
C. Focusing solely on digital marketing channels.
D. Ignoring customer feedback to maintain a consistent brand message.
128. What is ‘brand advocacy’?
A. A type of advertising campaign.
B. Customers who actively promote a brand to others.
C. A company’s internal marketing strategy.
D. A legal term related to trademark protection.
129. Which of the following best describes ‘buzz marketing’?
A. Using only print advertising.
B. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities.
C. Ignoring customer feedback.
D. Selling products door-to-door.
130. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of marketing communications?
A. To persuade customers to purchase a product or service.
B. To build and maintain customer relationships.
C. To inform customers about the product or service.
D. To minimize production costs.
131. Which of the following metrics is most useful for measuring the success of a public relations campaign?
A. Website traffic.
B. Brand mentions in the media.
C. Sales volume.
D. Production costs.
132. What does AIDA stand for in the context of marketing communications?
A. Awareness, Interest, Decision, Action
B. Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
C. Analysis, Implementation, Development, Assessment
D. Affordability, Innovation, Differentiation, Availability
133. What is the role of a ‘spokesperson’ in public relations?
A. To create advertising content.
B. To manage the company’s finances.
C. To represent the company and communicate its message to the public.
D. To develop the overall marketing strategy.
134. What is the danger of using deceptive or misleading advertising?
A. It can lead to increased sales in the short term.
B. It can damage the company’s reputation and erode customer trust.
C. It is a common practice and rarely has negative consequences.
D. It is always legal if the claims are not explicitly false.
135. What is the primary advantage of using digital marketing channels?
A. Lower cost compared to traditional channels and precise targeting.
B. Higher reach than traditional channels but less precise targeting.
C. Guaranteed high engagement rates.
D. No need for content creation.
136. A company wants to build a strong brand community. Which marketing communication strategy would be most effective?
A. Running aggressive advertising campaigns.
B. Creating engaging content and fostering interaction among customers.
C. Focusing solely on price promotions.
D. Ignoring customer feedback and complaints.
137. Which of the following is an example of ‘direct marketing’?
A. Running a television advertisement.
B. Sending a catalog directly to a customer’s home.
C. Sponsoring a local sports team.
D. Placing an advertisement in a newspaper.
138. A company using a ‘push’ strategy directs its marketing activities towards:
A. The ultimate consumers.
B. Channel members to induce them to carry the product and promote it to final consumers.
C. Competitors to discourage them.
D. Government agencies to influence policy.
139. What is ‘product placement’?
A. The process of designing a product.
B. The practice of including a product in a movie or TV show.
C. The process of setting the price of a product.
D. The process of distributing a product.
140. What is the role of a ‘media planner’?
A. To create advertising content.
B. To develop the overall marketing strategy.
C. To determine the best channels to reach the target audience.
D. To manage the company’s finances.
141. What is ‘content marketing’?
A. A marketing strategy that focuses on creating and distributing valuable, relevant, and consistent content to attract and retain a clearly defined audience.
B. A marketing strategy that focuses solely on advertising.
C. A marketing strategy that focuses solely on sales promotions.
D. A marketing strategy that focuses solely on personal selling.
142. What is the purpose of ‘public relations’?
A. To generate immediate sales.
B. To build good relations with the company’s various publics.
C. To directly persuade customers to buy the product.
D. To control all media coverage about the company.
143. What is the ‘affordable method’ of setting the promotion budget?
A. Setting the budget based on what the company thinks it can afford.
B. Setting the budget based on competitor spending.
C. Setting the budget based on the percentage of sales.
D. Setting the budget based on the objectives and tasks.
144. What is ‘personal selling’?
A. Selling products online only.
B. Personal presentations by the firm’s sales force for the purpose of making sales and building customer relationships.
C. Advertising products on television.
D. Using only direct mail marketing.
145. A company is launching a new product. Which promotional mix element would be most effective for creating awareness and generating initial interest?
A. Personal selling.
B. Advertising.
C. Sales promotion.
D. Direct marketing.
146. A company decides to use celebrity endorsements in its advertising campaigns. What is the primary risk associated with this strategy?
A. Increased production costs.
B. Damage to the brand image if the celebrity is involved in a scandal.
C. Difficulty in measuring advertising effectiveness.
D. Reduced customer loyalty.
147. Which of the following is a potential ethical concern in marketing communications?
A. Using accurate and truthful advertising.
B. Targeting vulnerable populations with potentially harmful products.
C. Providing clear and concise information about a product.
D. Building strong customer relationships.
148. A small business has a limited marketing budget. Which promotional tool would be the most cost-effective for reaching a local audience?
A. National television advertising.
B. Local social media marketing.
C. Print advertising in a national newspaper.
D. Sponsoring a professional sports team.
149. What is the ‘objective-and-task method’ of setting the promotion budget?
A. Setting the budget based on what the company thinks it can afford.
B. Setting the budget to match competitor spending.
C. Setting the budget based on the percentage of sales.
D. Setting the budget by defining specific objectives, determining the tasks that must be performed to achieve these objectives, and estimating the costs of performing these tasks.
150. What is the ‘competitive-parity method’ of setting the promotion budget?
A. Setting the budget based on what the company thinks it can afford.
B. Setting the budget to match competitor spending.
C. Setting the budget based on the percentage of sales.
D. Setting the budget based on the objectives and tasks.
